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Old 04-12-2008, 06:29 PM
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Default Moore Marsden Application

My husdband and I both owned homes prior to our marriage. My home was sold during our marriage. Now as we divorce he wants to claim Moore Marsden and therefore short me out of an equitable interest in the home we shared (I am on title). This seems wrong to me...are there specific instances when Moore Marsden can be inapplicable?


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